Cork Free Presbyterian Church, 10 Briarscourt (Annex) Shanakiel, Cork, Ireland 
Pastor: Colin Maxwell. Email:
colin.maxwell@fpcmission.org

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DAVID CLOUD AND ACTS 2:23

Previously, due to being very busy elsewhere, I was only able to analyse David Cloud's site where he sought to refute Calvinism's proof texts. I am anxious to return to this particular point. Other points made may well be chased up in the future. Although Mr Cloud is dealing initally with 1 Peter 1:2, you will notice in the unedited comments below, that the main thrust of his argument comes from Acts 2:23.


1 Peter 1:2 -- “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.”

"This verse says God’s election is based on His foreknowledge. The standard Calvinist position on foreknowledge is basically to do away with it by making it the same as forewill, doing away completely with the possibility that God’s election could have anything to do with what He foresees. But the word that Peter uses for “foreknowledge” is a word that means simply that God foreknew what would happen. It is the Greek word “prognosis,” which is a word still used commonly in English. When a doctor gives the prognosis of a disease, he describes the normal progression of the disease. He basically is able to tell the future because he knows beforehand what will happen. The doctrine of “foreknowledge,” if not redefined by Calvinism, goes a long way, though not all of the way, toward explaining the mystery of how God could elect but man could choose. There is doubtless more to election than foreknowledge and we do not claim to be able to explain these things fully, but the fact remains that God’s Word teaches us that foreknowledge is involved and it cannot be redefined to mean “foreordination.”

In his attempt to redefine “foreknowledge” and to mold it into “foreordination,” the Calvinist commonly uses Acts 2:23, which says that Jesus was crucified “by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God.” The Calvinist claims that determinate counsel and foreknowledge is the same thing, but it is evident that these are, in fact, two different things. The Calvinist points out that “determinate counsel” precedes “foreknowledge,” but what he fails to observe is the “and.” Acts 2:23 does not say that Jesus was crucified “by the determinate counsel which is the foreknowledge of God”; it says that Jesus was crucified “by the determinate counsel AND foreknowledge of God.” That God elects according to His foreknowledge does not mean that He elects solely according to His determinate counsel, and this fact does not make God any less God."

MY REPLY

The real issue in Acts 2:23 is not that the determinate counsel and foreknowledge are separate matters, but what is foreseen and its relationship to the determinate counsel of God. John Calvin (to take an example) separated the two matters. He wrote: "Luke setteth down two things in this place, the foreknowledge and the decree of God. And although the foreknowledge of God is former in order, (because God doth first see what he will determine, before he doth indeed determine the same,) yet doth he put the same after the counsel and decree of God, to the end we may know that God would nothing, neither appointed anything, save that which he had long before directed to his [its] end. For men do oftentimes rashly decree many things, because they decree them suddenly. Therefore, to the end Peter may teach that the counsel of God is not without reason, he coupleth also therewithal his foreknowledge. Now, we must distinguish these two, and so much the more diligently, because many are deceived in this point." (Commentary on Acts 2:23)

Even the Geneva Bible notes on the same verse do not contradict this: "God's everlasting foreknowledge, which can neither be separated from his determinate counsel, as the Epicureans say, neither yet be the cause of evil: for God in his everlasting and unchangeable counsel appointed the wicked act of Judas to an excellent end: and God does that well which the instrument does wickedly."  This is not, as Mr Cloud alleges of these unnamed and non referenced Calvinists, claiming that God's "determinate counsel and foreknowledge is the same thing" but rather that they cannot be separated one from the other i.e. the one invariably leads to the other.

However, we should not let Mr Cloud's inability to accurately state the issue deter us. As said above, the real issue is this: What was foreknown which led to the elect being thus elected?

Mr Cloud defines election like this:
"If, on the other hand, election involves an element of foreknowledge (1 Pet. 1:2) and involves a personal choice on the part of the sinner (“whosoever believeth,” Jn. 3:15, 16; 12:46; Acts 10:43; Rom. 9:33; 10:11; 1 John 5:1; Rev. 22:17; etc.), the exhortations and warnings in Hebrews make perfect sense." Mr Cloud's school believes that God saw beforehand who would believe and on this condition/basis elected them to everlasting life. He admits there is something more to election than this, but he insists that the guilty sinner must have an imput. This view is erroneous for a number of reasons:

1) It ignores the true link between foreknowledge and foreordination (See #4)
2) It effectively makes man at least partially his own Saviour. Faith is no longer the channel of salvation (as Calvinists believe) but an essential part of the cause. It is effectively Christ PLUS my faith that saves me.
3) As such it puts man in the driving seat, as he is the Great First Cause (in this matter) and God is simply responding in kind. Mr Cloud's school doesn't quite word it like this, but it is the logical outcome of their doctrine. This has been worded as follows: 
  [God] waited for us to pick Him, and then said, “I’ll take that one to myself!”
4) It leads to a logical absurdity. Albert Barnes's notes in Acts 2:23 are a lot sounder both logically and scripturally on this issue than Mr Cloud's:

"Foreknowledge - This word denotes “the seeing beforehand of an event yet to take place.” It implies: 1. Omniscience; and, 2.  That the event is fixed and certain. To foresee a contingent event, that is, to foresee that an event will take place when it may or may not take place, is an absurdity. Foreknowledge, therefore, implies that for some reason the event will certainly take place. What that reason, however, God is represented in the Scriptures as purposing or determining future events; as they could not be foreseen by him unless he had so determined, so the word sometimes is used in the sense of determining beforehand, or as synonymous with decreeing, (Romans 8:29/11:2). In this place the word is used to denote that the delivering up of Jesus was something more than a bare or naked decree. It implies that God did it according to his foresight of what would be the best time, place, and manner of its being done. It was not the result merely of will; it was will directed by a wise foreknowledge of what would be best. And this is the case with all the decrees of God. It follows from this that the conduct of the Jews was foreknown. God was not disappointed in anything respecting their treatment of his Son, nor will he be disappointed in any of the actions of people. Notwithstanding the wickedness of the world, his counsel shall stand, and he will do all his pleasure, (Isaiah 46:10)

The Greek word that is translated foreknowledge in 1 Peter 1:2 is actually translated as foreordained in 1 Peter 1:20. The words are synonymous in translation, because one invariably leads to the other. The Bishop's Bible renders 1 Peter 1:20 as "ordained beforehand" while William Tyndale rightly translates it "ordained before the world was made" Both these Bibles are predecessors of the AV.

Lest it be thought (or in Mr Cloud's case...repeated again and again) Calvinists do NOT believe that the elect come unwillingly to Jesus Christ, but we do deny that our election (which is the ultimate cause of our coming) is not based on foreseen faith or any other issue. The choice is sovereign on God's part. If He has the right to damn any in hell (which He does for their sins i.e. it is judicial) then He could have damned us all and no charges of unfairness or injustice laid against Him. If Hechooses to save some. but not all, then again, there can nothing said against it. To oblige God to save all, because He deigns to save some is to negate the whole concept of mercy and grace and put the Almighty under a debt. This is the outcome of Mr Cloud's doctrine...but not the Bible's.

THE END


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